BIO 304

BIO 304 EXAM 5 Spring 2006

NAME________________________________________________

Directions: There are 45 questions on the exam. Choose the BEST answer for the question and enter it on the scantron sheet. You may write on the exam.

1. Imagine that avian flu has mutated so that it can easily infect and be transmitted between humans. Those humans that are unable to be infected by the virus can be said to have a _______________ barrier at the portal of entry.

a. genetic

b. chemical

c. physical

d. epidemiological

e. none of the above

2. Components of the first line of defense include all the following except

a. nasal hairs

b. lysozyme

c. flushing action of urine

d. inflammation

e. dry, thick layers of skin that are periodically shed

3. Second line immune system based, non-specific defenses include:

a. lysozyme

b. lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat

c. skin’s acidic pH and fatty acids

d. all of the above

e. none of the above

4. The chemical found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan in certain bacterial cell walls is:

a. lactic acid

b. hydrochloric acid

c. lysozyme

d. histamine

e. bile

5. Regarding human defense to infection, the first line of defense includes:

a. inflammation

b. humoral antibodies

c. mucus and the ciliary escalator of the trachea and upper respiratory tract

d. complement

6. An antigen is

a. a surface protein that transmits a signal to the inside of the thymus

b. also known as an immunoglobin molecule

c. also known as the major histocompatibility complex

d. a foreign, non-self molecule recognized by antibody

e. none of the above

7. The most plentiful kind of white blood cell in the circulation are the:

a. eosinophils

b. monocytes

c. neutrophils

d. lymphocytes

e. macrophages

8. A prime example of the diapedesis of white blood cells is their action in the inflammatory response. The WBCs may leave the circulation in response to ___________________ .

a. vasoconstriction

b. pyogens

c. monocytes

d. chemotactic factors released by macrophages

9. The second line of defense in the human in response to microbes can be defined as:

a. a cellular and chemical system that is activated if the first line of defense is breached

b. a specific, acquired response to antigen

c. including inflammatory response, phagocytosis, interferon and complement

d. all of the above

e. a and c

10. Which is the correct order of events in the inflammatory response to a wound in the skin?

a. Mast cells release chemical mediators, vasoconstriction, clot formation, vasodilation, diapedesis, edema, pus formation, macrophage clean up

b. vasodilation, vasoconstriction, clot formation, mast cells release chemical mediators, pus formation, diapedesis, edema, , macrophage clean up

c. Mast cells release chemical mediators, clot formation, vasodilation, diapedesis, edema, pus formation, vasoconstriction, macrophage clean up

d. edema, pus formation, mast cells release chemical mediators, vasoconstriction, clot formation, vasodilation, diapedesis, macrophage clean up

11. A pyogen is a

a. pus former

b. fever inducer

c. biotechnology company

d. a person who likes to play with fire

e. none of the above

12. A pyrogen is a

a. pus former

b. fever inducer

c. biotechnology company

d. a person who likes to play with fire

e. none of the above

13. Pyrogens come in “two flavors”. Endogenous pyrogens are released by_______________ while exogenous pyrogens include____________________

a. white blood cells / LPS of Salmonella

b. Lipopolysaccharide / complement

c. B-cells / Plasma cells

d. the thymus / hypothalamic hormones

14. Benefits of fever include all of the following except:

a. inhibits multiplication of temperature sensitive microbes

b. decreases available iron

c. dissolving the anti-phagocytic capsule of S. pneumoniae

d. Speeds up immune responses

15. A Macrophage is all of the following except:

a. a monocyte that has left the blood circulation

b. an antigen presenting cell

c. a very active phagocytic cell

d. an antibody producing cell

16. All of the following are microbial anti-phagocytic mechanisms except:

a. possessing a capsule to prevent opsonization

b. prevent formation of a phagosome

c. prevent fusion of lysosomes to the phagosome

d. inactivation of antimicrobial chemicals released by the lysosome

e. all of the above are anti-phagocytic mechanisms…you can’t fool me!

17. Legionnella pneumophilia the cause of Legionnaire’s disease is able to avoid phagocytosis by preventing formation of the _________________, while Streptococcus pneumoniae has a different strategy; hiding cell surface features with a thick protective _____________________

a. complement _ opsonization

b. chemotactic factors _ flagellum

c. phagosome _ capsule

d. antimicrobial chemicals _ condom

18. An important role of complement in an immune system response is:

a. presentation of antigen on a macrophage

b. formation of a membrane attack complex that pokes holes in cell membranes

c. protection of adjacent cells from viral infection

d. production of histamine

19. Complement, like blood clotting, is a cascade reaction, which is defined as:

a. a sequential physiological response in which the first substance activates the next, which activates the next, and so on, until a desired end product is reached

b. a process which coats the surface of the microorganism with antibodies, thereby facilitating recognition and engulfment

c. a process which selects cells that recognize self antigens and eliminates them by the process of apoptosis

d. telling your friend how much you like their new haircut

20. Interferon is produced by a virally infected cell that serves to protect adjacent cells by stimulating the production of gene products that

a. inhibit viral reproduction or assembly

b. cause the death of adjacent cells

c. opsonize viruses

d. prevents the penetration of virions

21. B and T cells in the blood are collectively known as:

a. eosinophils

b. neutrophils

c. lymphocytes

d. monocytes

22. Antigen presenting cells:

a. include macrophages

b. engulf and breakdown invading microbes

c. hold and present processed antigen on their cell membrane

d. interact with T helper cells to initiate a specific immune response

e. all of the choices describe antigen presenting cells

23. MHC stands for:

a. my hairy chest

b. major hickey creation

c. mojo hip coffee

d. major histocompatibility carrots

e. major histocompatibility complex

24. MHC is an important molecule in the acquired immune response because it:

a. is a ‘self’ marker on all human cells

b. is an important contextual marker in macrophage-Tcell interactions

c. pairs with processed antigen in order to select and stimulate T-cells

d. all of the above

e. none of the above

25. _____________ is a measurement of the relative amount of immunoglobulin in the serum.

a. gamma globulin

b. secretory antibody

c. antibody titer

d. complement fixation

26. Choose the correct order of events in macrophage-Tcell interaction to respond to a specific antigen

a. macrophage ingests antigen, macrophage processes and presents antigen on cell surface together with MHC, T-cell receptor recognizes Ag/MHC complex, T cell releases interleukin-2 to stimulate B-cell.

b. T-cell receptor recognizes Ag/MHC complex, T cell releases interleukin-2 to stimulate B-cell, macrophage ingests antigen, macrophage processes and presents antigen on cell surface together with MHC

c. macrophage ingests antigen, macrophage processes and presents antigen on cell surface together with MHC, T cell releases interleukin-2 to stimulate B-cell, T-cell receptor recognizes Ag/MHC complex

d. I don’t have a clue

27. The B cell response to antigen/MHC includes two pathways which are:

a. clonal expansion/differentiation into plasma cells and memory

b. apoptosis and inflammation

c. vaccination and IgA production

d. production of T-suppressor cells and clonal expansion

e. none of the above

28. Autoimmune disease occurs when:

a. the immune system recognizes self as non-self

b. self T and B cell clones are not eliminated during maturation of the lymphocytes

c. T-helper cells are wiped out by a virus

d. all of the above

e. a and b only

29. _____________T cells assist in the functions of certain B cells and other T cells.

a. sensitized

b. cytotoxic

c. helper

d. natural killer

30. IgM is produced at __________________, while IgA is a dimer found: _______________

a. first response to antigen _ on mucous membranes

b. memory response_in the serum

c. helminth infections _ in allergic responses

d. memory response _ on B cell membranes

31. Antibody titer responses that are faster more abundant, and longer lasting in response to a second challenge by a specific antigen is known as

a. apoptosis

b. memory

c. opsonization

d. complement fixation

e. interferon

32. T helper cells_____________ while T suppressor cells__________________

a. kill virally infected cells _ cause allergic reactions

b. activate complement _ activate B cells

c. secrete chemical mediators to activate B and other T cells _ ‘turn off’ other T-cell and B-cell responses

d. all of the above

e. none of the above

33. An immune compromised individual bitten by a rabid dog would most benefit from the immunotherapy that contains serum from other patients convalescing from rabies infection called:

a. immune serum globulin

b. specific immune globulin

Matching: Questions 34-37. Match the definition on the right to the term on the left.

34. ______ natural active immunity	a. Chickenpox infection followed by lifelong immunity
35. ______ natural passive immunity	b. Chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox
36. ______ artificial active immunity	c. Giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease
37. ______ artificial passive immunity	d. Maternal antibodies passed to a breastfeeding infant

38. DNA vaccines are plasmids which carry ______________________DNA. They are injected into the muscle, where some of the cells spontaneously take up the DNA. When in the cell, the plasmid DNA will be transcribed and translated into a microbial ___________________ and released into the extracellular space, where the immune system will be activated to respond to the foreign antigen.

a. human, RNA

b. microbial, protein

c. human, protein

d. microbial, polysaccharide

39. The ELISA test can be used to identify

a. unknown antibodies

b. unknown antigens

c. specific DNA

d. both a and b

Matching: Questions 40-43, match the definition on the right to the term on the left.

40. ______ acellular or subunit vaccine	a. vaccine stimulates immunity, but contains pathogen that cannot multiply
41. ______ killed cell or inactivated vaccine	b. vaccine microbe can multiply, but virulence is eliminated or reduced
42. ______ recombinant vaccine	c. contains biochemically purified ‘pieces’ of a pathogen known to stimulate an immune response
43. ______ live, attenuated vaccine	d. gene coding for antigen is produced in great amount by yeast or bacteria, then purified and used as vaccine

44. In the ELISA discussed in class, a known antigen is in the well of the microtiter dish, and is used to detect antibody in a patient’s serum. The secondary antibody added to detect the human antibody stuck to the antigen is:

a. conjugated to an enzyme

b. will cause a color change of the substrate added in the last step

c. will be washed out of the well if the serum does not contain the primary antibody directed toward the antigen

d. all of the above

e. none of the above

45. Western blots are used as a confirmatory test if the ELISA gives a positive because they take more time, but are more specific in identifying an exact_________

a. protein

b. peptidoglycan

c. capsule

d. plasmid